![]() I am asking this because one Mufti (scholar who gives fatwa) said that even if the husband said 'tala' (instead of talaaq) with a complete sentance, like, 'I' and 'give you', the divorce will take place even if the husband did not pronounce the word 'divorce' completely. ![]() So the format for 'I divorce you' would be 'I you divorce give'. And the format of pronouncing the divorce is like this: Main (I) Tumein (you), Talaq (divorce), and the word Di (give) comes in the end of the sentence. However, if a husband did not pronouce the word Talaaq (divorce) completely, like for example, he said 'Talaa' or 'Talq' (skipping the letter Alif) instead, would that still count as a divorce? If he says 'Main Tumien Tala Di' in the Urdu language, meaning, 'I give div (talaa) to You', would a divorce take place? In Urdu, the format of saying 'I divorce you' is like this: the word 'Talaq' comes in the middle of the sentence, before 'give'. In pakistani culture, if the husband says, 'I divorce you', it would count as a divorce no matter what his intentions were.
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